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Valuation

How to put a number on a business: intrinsic (DCF) valuation step by step with a complete worked model, the bridge from enterprise value to a price per share, dividend and FCFE models, multiples and comparables, sector metrics, young and unprofitable companies, startup methods, and the biases that make most valuations wrong in predictable directions. Discount rates, CAPM and WACC are derived in corporate finance; free cash flow definitions and statement analysis in financial statements; cap tables, SAFEs and 409A mechanics in startup finance.

Value versus price

Value is what an asset is worth given its expected cash flows and their risk. Price is what someone pays today, set by supply, demand, mood, liquidity and narrative. They converge only if the market eventually agrees with your cash-flow view, and nothing guarantees when.

Valuing (intrinsic)Pricing (relative)
questionwhat are the cash flows worth?what are others paying for similar things?
drivercash flows, growth, riskmultiples, momentum, flows, sentiment
toolDCF, DDMcomparables, precedent transactions
who uses itlong-horizon investors, acquirers, corporate financetraders, bankers, most VCs, IPO pricing
fails wheninputs are fantasythe whole peer group is mispriced

Damodaran's framing: most "valuations" in practice are pricing exercises. That is fine if you know which one you are doing. A DCF that is reverse-engineered to hit a comparable's multiple is pricing dressed as valuation.

Approaches

ApproachMethodBest forWeakness
intrinsic / DCFPV of free cash flows at the cost of capitalbusinesses with forecastable cash flows; acquisitions; strategygarbage in, garbage out; terminal value dominates
relative / multiplesapply peer EV/EBITDA, P/E, EV/Revenuequick market-consistent price; IPOs; fairness opinionsimports the market's errors; peers rarely comparable
asset-basedsum of assets at market or liquidation value, minus liabilitiesholding companies, real estate, liquidation, distressignores going-concern and intangible value
option-basedprice equity or projects as options (Black–Scholes, binomial)distressed equity, patents, undeveloped reserves, real optionsinputs (volatility, underlying value) hard to estimate
VC methodexit value ÷ target multiple, adjusted for dilutionearly-stage startupsexit value and target return are negotiated guesses
sum of the partsvalue each division separatelyconglomerates, spin-off analysisholding-company discounts and dis-synergies

Use at least two approaches and reconcile the difference; the gap usually tells you which assumption to investigate.

DCF step by step

EV=∑t=1nFCFFt(1+WACC)t+TVn(1+WACC)n,FCFF=EBIT(1−T)+D&A−CapEx−ΔNWCEV = \sum_{t=1}^{n} \frac{FCFF_t}{(1+WACC)^t} + \frac{TV_n}{(1+WACC)^n}, \qquad FCFF = EBIT(1-T) + D\&A - \text{CapEx} - \Delta NWC
  1. Understand the business and write the narrative

    What does it sell, to whom, why does it win, how big can it get, what does it cost to grow? Every number below should trace back to a sentence here.

  2. Normalize the base year

    Start from financial statements: strip one-offs, capitalize R&D if it behaves like investment, treat leases as debt consistently, separate non-operating assets.

  3. Forecast free cash flow to the firm

    Revenue growth → operating margin → taxes → reinvestment (capex − D&A + ΔNWC). Explicit period of 5–10 years, long enough to reach a steady state where growth, margins and returns on capital are stable.

  4. Discount at WACC

    Market-value weights, bottom-up beta, risk-free rate and equity risk premium from the same date (see corporate finance). Use the mid-year convention if cash arrives through the year (multiply by (1+WACC)0.5(1+WACC)^{0.5}).

  5. Terminal value

    Gordon growth with a growth rate at or below long-run nominal GDP and reinvestment consistent with that growth; cross-check against an exit multiple.

  6. Bridge to equity and per share

    Add non-operating assets, subtract debt and other claims, divide by diluted shares (treasury stock method).

  7. Stress and reconcile

    Sensitivity table (WACC × g), scenarios, compare to multiples and to the current price; explain the gap.

Terminal value

Gordon growth (perpetuity) method:

TVn=FCFn+1WACC−gwithFCFn+1=NOPATn+1(1−gRONIC)TV_n = \frac{FCF_{n+1}}{WACC - g} \qquad\text{with}\qquad FCF_{n+1} = NOPAT_{n+1}\left(1 - \frac{g}{RONIC}\right)

The second form is Koller et al.'s value-driver formula: growth needs reinvestment, and the reinvestment rate is g/RONICg/RONIC (return on new invested capital). If RONIC=WACCRONIC = WACC, growth adds no value and TV=NOPATn+1/WACCTV = NOPAT_{n+1}/WACC whatever gg is. Plugging a growth rate in without the matching reinvestment is the most common way DCFs overstate value.

Exit multiple method: TVn=multiple×EBITDAnTV_n = \text{multiple} \times EBITDA_n. Simple and market-consistent, but it is a relative valuation inserted into a DCF: the multiple embeds someone else's growth and return assumptions. Always back out the implied perpetual growth rate and ask if it is plausible.

CheckRule of thumb
gg≤ long-run nominal growth of the economy (and of the currency's risk-free rate); 2–4% is typical for USD models
gg vs WACCWACCgg must be well below WACC; as g→WACCg \to WACC, value → ∞
steady statemargins, growth and ROIC stable in the last explicit year; otherwise extend the forecast
RONICbetween WACC (competition erodes excess returns) and today's ROIC (durable moat)
TV share of EVcommonly 60–80%+, higher for growth firms: that is normal, but it means the explicit forecast barely matters

From enterprise value to equity value

StepItemNote
enterprise value (PV of FCFF)value of operations to all capital providers
+cash and equivalentsexcess cash only, if some is needed to operate
+non-operating assetsinvestments, equity stakes, surplus property, overfunded pensions
−debtmarket value if available; include lease liabilities if FCFF was computed before lease payments
−preferred stockat liquidation or market value
−minority (non-controlling) interestif you consolidated 100% of a subsidiary's cash flows
−other claimsunderfunded pensions, litigation, some deferred taxes, contingent consideration
=equity value
÷diluted sharesbasic + in-the-money options (treasury stock method) + RSUs + convertibles if in the money
=value per share

Treasury stock method (TSM): in-the-money options add N×(1−K/P)N \times (1 - K/P) shares, because the exercise cash buys back shares at price PP. In a DCF, PP is the value you are solving for, so iterate (or value options with Black–Scholes and subtract their value from equity before dividing by basic shares, the more rigorous route).

Worked five-year DCF

An invented company, Quillmark Sensors: industrial sensors, $500m revenue last year, growing fast but slowing. USD millions except per share.

AssumptionValue
revenue growth, years 1–520%, 16%, 12%, 9%, 6%
EBIT margin, years 1–512.0%, 13.5%, 15.0%, 16.0%, 17.0%
tax rate21%
D&A / capex4% / 6% of revenue
NWC10% of revenue (ΔNWC = 10% of Δrevenue)
WACC9.0% (≈ β 1.3 at 4.18% RfR_f and 4.23% ERP, 15% debt at 6% pre-tax → 8.94%)
terminal growth / RONIC3.0% / 15%
Year                    1       2       3       4       5
Revenue             600.0   696.0   779.5   849.7   900.7
EBIT                 72.0    94.0   116.9   135.9   153.1
Tax at 21%          -15.1   -19.7   -24.6   -28.5   -32.2
NOPAT                56.9    74.2    92.4   107.4   121.0
+ D&A                24.0    27.8    31.2    34.0    36.0
- Capex             -36.0   -41.8   -46.8   -51.0   -54.0
- Change in NWC     -10.0    -9.6    -8.4    -7.0    -5.1
FCFF                 34.9    50.7    68.4    83.4    97.8
Discount factor    0.9174  0.8417  0.7722  0.7084  0.6499
PV of FCFF           32.0    42.7    52.8    59.1    63.6
 
Sum of PV (years 1-5)                        250.2
NOPAT year 6 = 121.0 x 1.03                  124.6
Reinvestment rate = g / RONIC = 3% / 15%       20%
FCFF year 6 = 124.6 x (1 - 0.20)              99.7
Terminal value = 99.7 / (9.0% - 3.0%)       1,661.2
PV of terminal value = 1,661.2 x 0.6499     1,079.6
Enterprise value                            1,329.8
Terminal value share of EV                    81.2%
 
+ Cash                                         60.0
+ Non-operating investments                    25.0
- Debt                                       -220.0
- Minority interest                           -15.0
Equity value                                1,179.8
 
Basic shares 40.0m; RSUs 0.8m
Options 3.0m at strike 12 (in the money)
Options 1.5m at strike 30 (out of the money)
TSM, iterated: diluted shares 42.50m
Value per share                              27.76
  • The iteration converges at $27.76: the $12 options add 3.0×(1−12/27.76)=1.703.0 \times (1 - 12/27.76) = 1.70m shares; the $30 options are out of the money and add nothing.
  • The terminal value is 81% of enterprise value. The five forecast years, where all the modeling effort went, contribute less than a fifth.
  • Exit-multiple cross-check. The Gordon terminal value is 8.8× year-5 EBITDA (189.1). An "industry" exit multiple of 11× gives TV 2,080.5 and EV 1,602.4 (+20%), but at 15% RONIC that multiple implies perpetual growth of about 4.9%, above what most forecasters expect for long-run US nominal GDP. The multiple is smuggling in growth.
  • A naive FCF5×(1+g)FCF_5 \times (1+g) terminal cash flow gives EV 1,341.9: close here only because year-5 reinvestment (19.1% of NOPAT) happens to be near the 20% that 3% growth requires. With heavier year-5 capex, the naive method would be badly off.

Sensitivity: value per share (WACC × terminal growth)

WACC \ g2.0%2.5%3.0%3.5%4.0%
8.0%30.9532.3934.1236.2238.82
8.5%28.1729.3430.6932.2734.18
9.0%25.7826.7027.7629.0030.47
9.5%23.7024.4325.2626.2227.35
10.0%21.8922.4723.1223.8724.74

Enterprise value across the same grid runs from $1,073m (10%, 2%) to $1,828m (8%, 4%). A ±1 point range on WACC, which is roughly the honest uncertainty in any cost of capital, moves value per share from $23.12 to $34.12 (−17% to +23%). Report a range, not a point.

Common DCF mistakes

MistakeWhy it mattersFix
terminal value is 70–80%+ of EV and nobody examined itcommon and not wrong in itself, but it means the value rests on steady-state assumptions, not the detailed forecastspend as much effort on steady-state margin, RONIC and gg as on year 1
gg above nominal GDP growtha firm growing faster than the economy forever eventually becomes the economycap gg at or below the risk-free rate / nominal GDP; extend the high-growth period instead
growth without reinvestmentfree growth inflates valuereinvestment = g/RONICg/RONIC; or sales-to-capital ratio in the forecast
mismatched cash flows and ratesFCFF at cost of equity, FCFE at WACC, nominal flows at real rates, USD flows at a local-currency rateFCFF ↔ WACC, FCFE ↔ kEk_E, nominal ↔ nominal, same currency
double countingsubtracting interest from FCFF and using WACC; counting cash in FCFF and adding it again; leases in both EBITDA and debt inconsistentlypick one treatment and apply it to cash flows, WACC weights and the bridge
risk counted twiceconservative cash flows and a padded discount rateexpected (probability-weighted) cash flows at an unpadded rate
circularity ignoredWACC weights depend on equity value, which depends on WACC; TSM dilution depends on priceiterate, or use target weights
stock-based compensation added backSBC is a real cost paid in sharestreat it as an expense in FCFF, or count all future dilution
margins that expand forevermargins above the best firms in the industrybenchmark steady-state margin against peers
no link between story and numbersa 30% revenue CAGR for a firm with no moatwrite the narrative first; test each number against it
precision theatre"$27.7614 per share"round, and show the sensitivity grid

FCFE and dividend discount models

Free cash flow to equity is what is left for shareholders after reinvestment and debt flows:

FCFE=NI−(CapEx−D&A)−ΔNWC+(new debt−debt repaid)FCFE = NI - (\text{CapEx} - D\&A) - \Delta NWC + (\text{new debt} - \text{debt repaid})

Worked: net income 120, capex 60, D&A 40, ΔNWC 10, net borrowing 15 → FCFE=120−20−10+15=105FCFE = 120 - 20 - 10 + 15 = 105. Discount FCFE at the cost of equity to get equity value directly. Use FCFE when leverage is stable or when debt is operating raw material (banks, insurers).

Dividend discount model (Gordon 1959):

P0=D1kE−gP_0 = \frac{D_1}{k_E - g}

D1D_1 = $2.00, kEk_E = 8%, gg = 4% → $50.00. Two-stage: D0D_0 = $1.50 growing 12% for 5 years ($1.680, $1.882, $2.107, $2.360, $2.644), then 4%, at kEk_E = 9%. PV of dividends $8.14, terminal value 2.644×1.04/0.05=54.992.644 \times 1.04 / 0.05 = 54.99, PV $35.74, value $43.88, 81% of it from the terminal value.

DDMs suit stable dividend payers (utilities, banks, consumer staples) and fail for firms that pay little and buy back a lot; use FCFE or FCFF there.

Multiples

MultipleFormulaFitsAvoid when
EV/EBITDAenterprise value / EBITDAcapital-intensive, leveraged or cross-border comparisons (before D&A, interest, tax differences)capex intensity differs (EBITDA ignores it); leases treated inconsistently
EV/EBITEV / operating profitwhen D&A reflects real capital consumptionheavy acquisition amortization distorts EBIT
EV/RevenueEV / salesunprofitable or early firms; margins expected to convergemargins differ a lot among peers
P/Eprice / EPSmature, profitable firms with similar leveragelosses, one-offs, very different leverage
PEGP/E ÷ expected growth (%)comparing growth firms (popularised by Peter Lynch)ignores risk and ROIC; growth estimates are optimistic
P/Bprice / book equitybanks, insurers (assets marked near market)intangible-heavy firms; buyback-shrunk equity
EV/ARR, P/FFO, EV/reservessector-specificsee belowoutside that sector

Rules: equity multiples (P/E, P/B) pair equity value with equity-holder earnings; enterprise multiples (EV/…) pair EV with pre-interest measures. Mixing them (price / EBITDA) is wrong. Prefer forward multiples for growing firms and be consistent across peers.

Multiples are compressed DCFs. From the Gordon model:

P0E1=payoutkE−g,P0B0=ROE−gkE−g,EVNOPAT1=1−g/ROICWACC−g\frac{P_0}{E_1} = \frac{\text{payout}}{k_E - g}, \qquad \frac{P_0}{B_0} = \frac{ROE - g}{k_E - g}, \qquad \frac{EV}{NOPAT_1} = \frac{1 - g/ROIC}{WACC - g}
InputsImplied multiple
payout 50%, kEk_E 9%, gg 4%forward P/E 10.0×
ROE 12%, kEk_E 9%, gg 4%P/B 1.6×
ROE 8% (below kEk_E), sameP/B 0.8×: book value destroyed
ROIC 15%, WACC 8.5%, gg 4%, tax 21%EV/NOPAT 16.3×, EV/EBIT 12.9×

A peer "trading at a discount" may simply have lower ROIC or higher risk. Before calling it cheap, check that the fundamentals match.

Picking comparables

  • Same economics: business model, growth, margins, ROIC, risk, size, geography. Industry code is a starting point, not a test.
  • 5–10 peers beats 30 loosely related ones. Remove outliers with a stated reason, not because they are inconvenient.
  • Use the median (robust to outliers) and the interquartile range; show both.
  • Adjust for accounting differences (leases, SBC, one-offs) before computing multiples.
  • Regress the multiple on its driver (EV/Revenue on operating margin or growth) across peers when the set is large enough.
Trading comparablesPrecedent transactions
sourcecurrent market prices of listed peersprices paid in past M&A deals
includes control premiumno (minority, liquid stakes)yes
useIPO pricing, minority valuationM&A pricing, fairness opinions, floor for a sale price
problemmarket-wide mispricingstale (different market conditions); deal-specific synergies baked in

Worked example

Target: EBITDA $120m, net income $45m, net debt $300m, 50m shares.

PeerEV/EBITDAP/E
A9.5×17.0×
B11.0×19.5×
C12.5×24.0×
D10.0×16.0×
E14.0×31.0×
median (mean)11.0× (11.4×)19.5× (21.5×)
MethodLow (2nd peer)MedianHigh (4th peer)
EV/EBITDA → EV1,2001,3201,500
− net debt → equity9001,0201,200
per share$18.00$20.40$24.00
P/E → per share$15.30$17.55$21.60

The P/E answer is lower: either the target has higher interest costs or tax than peers, or its EBITDA converts to earnings less efficiently. Find out which before averaging the two.

Sector-specific metrics

SectorMetricWhyPitfall
SaaS / subscriptionEV/ARR (or EV/NTM revenue); net revenue retention; Rule of 40revenue is recurring and margins are depressed by growth spendingARR definitions vary; multiples swing with interest rates
banksP/B (or P/tangible book) vs ROE; P/Eassets and liabilities near market value; debt is raw materialbook value depends on loan-loss provisioning
insurersP/B, embedded valueas banksreserve adequacy
REITsP/FFO, P/AFFO, NAVGAAP depreciation of property understates cash earningsFFO ignores maintenance capex (AFFO deducts it)
energy / miningEV/reserves, EV/production, NAV at strip pricesvalue is in the groundcommodity price deck assumptions
retailEV/EBITDAR, sales per square footrent-heavy cost baseslease treatment
biotechrisk-adjusted NPV (rNPV) by pipeline assetbinary trial outcomesphase success probabilities

Rule of 40. Revenue growth % + profit margin % ≥ 40 for a healthy software company at scale. Brad Feld popularised it in "The Rule of 40% For a Healthy SaaS Company" (3 February 2015), saying he heard it from a late-stage investor at a board meeting; he preferred EBITDA as the profit measure and applied it to companies with at least about $50m of revenue. Many now use free-cash-flow margin instead. Worked: 35% growth and 5% FCF margin scores 40. It is a heuristic for the growth-versus-profit trade-off, not a valuation model; at illustrative EV/ARR multiples of 6–10×, $50m ARR spans $300–500m of EV, a range that shows how much the multiple, not the company, drives the answer.

FFO (Nareit definition): GAAP net income excluding gains or losses on sales of property, impairments of depreciable real estate, and real-estate depreciation and amortization.

Young, high-growth and unprofitable companies

No earnings, short history, few comparables and a real chance of failure. Damodaran's approach (The Dark Side of Valuation; his paper on young and start-up companies) keeps the DCF structure but changes what drives it:

DriverHow
revenue growthstart from total addressable market and plausible market share; growth decays toward the economy's
target operating marginmargin in steady state, benchmarked to mature peers; converge from today's losses
reinvestmentΔRevenue/sales-to-capital ratio\Delta \text{Revenue} / \text{sales-to-capital ratio} (industry benchmark); ties growth to capital spent
net operating lossescarry forward to shield future profits from tax
cost of capitalhigh early (like a young firm), falling to a mature-firm level by the terminal year
probability of failurevalue the going concern, then weight: V=VGC(1−p)+Vdistress pV = V_{GC}(1 - p) + V_{distress}\,p
equity claimssubtract the value of employee options and preferred claims; value per share of common

Worked (invented, USD millions). Revenue 20, operating margin −30%, NOL 5, cash 30. Growth 60% decaying to 3% by year 10; margin converging linearly to 20%; sales-to-capital 2.0; tax 21%; cost of capital 11% for years 1–5, falling to 8.5% by year 10.

Yr  Growth  Revenue  Margin   EBIT    Tax  Reinvest   FCFF    WACC  PV
 1   60.0%    32.0   -25%     -8.0    0.0     6.0    -14.0   11.0%  -12.6
 2   50.0%    48.0   -20%     -9.6    0.0     8.0    -17.6   11.0%  -14.3
 3   40.0%    67.2   -15%    -10.1    0.0     9.6    -19.7   11.0%  -14.4
 4   35.0%    90.7   -10%     -9.1    0.0    11.8    -20.8   11.0%  -13.7
 5   30.0%   117.9    -5%     -5.9    0.0    13.6    -19.5   11.0%  -11.6
 6   24.6%   146.9     0%      0.0    0.0    14.5    -14.5   10.5%   -7.8
 7   19.2%   175.2     5%      8.8    0.0    14.1     -5.3   10.0%   -2.6
 8   13.8%   199.3    10%     19.9    0.0    12.1      7.8    9.5%    3.5
 9    8.4%   216.1    15%     32.4    2.8     8.4     21.2    9.0%    8.7
10    3.0%   222.6    20%     44.5    9.3     3.2     31.9    8.5%   12.0
 
Sum of PV, years 1-10                                  -52.8
Terminal: NOPAT 36.2 x (1 - 3%/15%) / (8.5% - 3%)        526.8
PV of terminal value                                    198.6
Value of operating assets (going concern)               145.8
Failure probability 25%, distress proceeds 5.0
Adjusted: 145.8 x 0.75 + 5.0 x 0.25                     110.6
+ Cash                                                   30.0
Equity value (before option and preference claims)      140.6

Seven of the ten years have negative cash flows and their combined PV is negative, so all of the value is in the terminal value; the failure probability alone removes about a quarter. The model's use is not the point estimate but showing which story assumptions (TAM, target margin, capital efficiency) the price requires.

Startup valuation

At seed and Series A there is little to discount, so investors price the round. Details of cap tables, SAFEs, option pools and dilution are in startup finance.

Pre-money vs post-money. post=pre+new money\text{post} = \text{pre} + \text{new money}; investor ownership = investment/post\text{investment} / \text{post}. A $2m investment at $8m pre is $10m post and 20%. Watch whether the option pool is created before the round (reducing the effective pre-money for founders) and whether SAFEs convert on a pre- or post-money basis.

VC method

Post-money=exit valuetarget multiple×retention ratio,required ownership now=investment×target multipleexit value×retention\text{Post-money} = \frac{\text{exit value}}{\text{target multiple}} \times \text{retention ratio}, \qquad \text{required ownership now} = \frac{\text{investment} \times \text{target multiple}}{\text{exit value} \times \text{retention}}

Worked: a VC invests $8m. If the company succeeds, year-6 revenue of $60m at 5× EV/Revenue gives an exit value of $300m. Target multiple 10× (≈ 46.8% IRR over 6 years).

CaseRequired ownershipPost-moneyPre-money
no future dilution8×10/3008 \times 10 / 300 = 26.7%$30.0m$22.0m
later rounds leave 70% (retention 0.7)26.7%/0.726.7\% / 0.7 = 38.1%$21.0m$13.0m

The high target multiple is not greed alone: it bundles the probability of failure (most portfolio companies return little), illiquidity and the VC's own fees into one number, applied to a success-case exit value. That makes the method a pricing convention, not an expected-value calculation.

Scorecard and Berkus

MethodHowWeakness
Berkus (Dave Berkus, 1990s)up to $0.5m for each of five elements (sound idea, prototype, quality team, strategic relationships, product rollout or sales); pre-revenue maximum $2.5m in the original versionarbitrary caps; ignores market size and the current funding market; Berkus himself later suggested adjusting the caps
Scorecard (Bill Payne)start from the median pre-money of comparable local deals, then adjust by weighted factors: team up to 30%, opportunity size 25%, product 15%, competition 10%, marketing and channels 10%, need for more funding 5%, other 5%anchored on what others paid; subjective weights

Both are negotiation anchors for angels, not valuations: neither looks at cash flows, and both inherit whatever the local market is paying.

Headline valuations overstate common stock

The headline post-money = latest preferred price × all fully diluted shares. It assumes every share is worth what the newest preferred paid, but preferred shares carry liquidation preferences, seniority and other rights common shares do not.

Worked: 100m fully diluted shares; Series B buys 10m at $10 ($100m) with a 1× non-participating preference. Headline post-money: $1bn.

Exit valueSeries B takesCommon per share (90m shares)
$150m$100m (preference)$0.56
$400m$100m (preference)$3.33
$1,000m$100m (either)$10.00
$2,000m$200m (converts to 10%)$20.00

Common is only worth the headline price if the exit is at least $1bn. With a participating preference, at $400m Series B takes $100m + 10% of the remaining $300m = $130m, and common falls to $3.00. Gornall and Strebulaev (2020) modeled 135 US unicorns and found reported post-money valuations averaged 48% above fair value, with common shares overvalued by 56%; 65 lost unicorn status after adjustment.

409A valuations

US private companies granting options need a fair-market-value estimate of common stock under IRC §409A; an independent appraisal is presumed reasonable (a safe harbor) for up to 12 months unless a material event occurs. It is usually well below the preferred price because of preferences and illiquidity. Mechanics and timing are in startup finance.

Real options valuation

Some assets are worth more than their DCF because they carry rights to act later: undeveloped oil reserves, a drug patent, a pilot that could scale, the equity of a distressed firm (a call on the firm's assets struck at the face value of its debt).

Option inputReal-asset analogue
underlying value SSPV of cash flows from developing the asset now
strike KKcost of developing it
time to expiry TTlife of the patent, lease or license
volatility σ\sigmauncertainty in the underlying value
dividend yieldvalue lost each year of waiting (competitors, cash flows forgone)

Intuition: a project with negative NPV today can still be worth something if it can be deferred and is highly uncertain, because you only exercise in the good states. Keep option value separate from the DCF and show it explicitly; do not add "strategic value" to a DCF without a named decision, trigger and payoff. Decision trees are usually more honest than Black–Scholes for non-traded assets. Details in corporate finance.

Biases, narrative and numbers

Valuations are biased before they are wrong: the analyst usually knows the answer the client wants.

BiasSymptomCounter
who payssell-side, fairness opinions and deal models land near the deal priceask what answer each party needs; value it before seeing the price
anchoringDCF tuned until it matches the market or the last roundbuild the model before looking up the price; record the first estimate
confirmationonly bullish comparables survive the outlier screenpre-register the peer set and screening rule
overconfidencenarrow ranges, single-point answerssensitivity grids, scenario weights, base rates
narrative drifta great story with numbers that do not follow from ittest each number against the story
false precisionmany decimals, tiny rangesround; show ranges

More on these in cognitive biases and decision-making.

Narrative and numbers (Damodaran, 2017). Every valuation is a story told in numbers. Write the story first (what the company will be), check it is possible, plausible and probable, convert it into drivers (market size, share, margins, reinvestment, risk), value it, then keep a feedback loop: when events change the story (a regulatory ruling, a new competitor, a management change) the value changes; noise that does not change the story should not. Storytellers learn where their narrative is implausible; number-crunchers learn when their spreadsheet tells a story no one would believe.

Famous valuation lessons

EpisodeWhat happenedLesson
dot-com bubbleNasdaq Composite closed at 5,048.62 on 10 March 2000 and fell 78% to 1,114.11 by 9 October 2002"new economy" narratives with no path to cash flows; prices set by momentum and comparables of comparables
AOL–Time Warnerannounced January 2000 at the peak; in 2002 the combined company reported a $98.7bn net loss, driven by goodwill write-downs, then the largest annual loss in US corporate historypaying with overvalued stock for a real business; goodwill write-downs are how accounting eventually admits it
Uber, 2014Damodaran valued Uber at about $5.9bn when it raised money at $17bn; Bill Gurley replied ("How to Miss By a Mile") that he had underestimated the market by assuming it was the existing taxi market; Uber listed in May 2019 at $45 a share, about $82bn fully dilutedTAM is a narrative choice; a disciplined DCF exposes which assumption carries the price, and good investors argue about that assumption, not the spreadsheet
WeWork, 2019valued at $47bn in a January 2019 SoftBank round; the August 2019 S-1 exposed losses, governance and related-party problems; the IPO was withdrawn on 30 September 2019 and SoftBank's October rescue valued it under $8bn; listed by SPAC in October 2021 at about $9bn; Chapter 11 on 6 November 2023a private mark set by one motivated investor is a price, not a value; a property-leasing business priced as a tech platform
unicorn markspreferred-share terms inflate headline valuations (Gornall and Strebulaev)value the security you hold, not the headline

Common threads: the price was set by a narrative that was never converted into cash-flow assumptions, or by a comparable set that was itself mispriced, and the people setting it had incentives to agree.

Templates and checklists

DCF template

COMPANY: __________   Valuation date: ______   Currency: ___
 
NARRATIVE (3-5 sentences): what it is, why it wins, how big,
how profitable, what it costs to grow, what could break it.
 
INPUTS                          Value     Source / date
Base-year revenue, EBIT         ______    ______________
Revenue growth yrs 1..n         ______    TAM x share logic
Target operating margin         ______    mature peer median
Sales-to-capital / reinvest.    ______    industry benchmark
Tax rate (effective -> marg.)   ______    ______________
Risk-free rate                  ______    10y yield, date
Equity risk premium             ______    implied ERP, date
Beta (bottom-up, relevered)     ______    peer set listed
Cost of debt (pre-tax)          ______    rating / yield
Target D/(D+E)                  ______    ______________
WACC                            ______
Terminal g / RONIC              ______    <= risk-free rate
Probability of failure          ______    (young firms)
 
OUTPUT
Sum PV FCFF ____  PV TV ____  EV ____  TV % of EV ____
+ cash ____ + non-op ____ - debt ____ - leases ____
- minority ____ - preferred ____ - other claims ____
Equity ____  Diluted shares (TSM) ____  Per share ____
 
CROSS-CHECKS
Implied EV/EBITDA and P/E vs peers: ____
Implied g from exit multiple: ____
Sensitivity grid WACC x g attached: [ ]
Bear / base / bull and weights: ____
Current price ____  Gap ____  Which assumption explains it?

Valuation checklist

[ ] Am I valuing (cash flows) or pricing (multiples)? Say so.
[ ] Narrative written before the spreadsheet was opened?
[ ] Base year normalized (one-offs, R&D, leases, SBC)?
[ ] FCFF with WACC, or FCFE with cost of equity, never mixed?
[ ] Nominal/real and currency consistent with the discount rate?
[ ] Rf and ERP from the same stated date?
[ ] Growth backed by reinvestment (g / RONIC, sales-to-capital)?
[ ] Terminal g at or below long-run nominal GDP / risk-free?
[ ] Terminal-year margins and ROIC plausible vs mature peers?
[ ] TV share of EV reported and examined?
[ ] Implied exit multiple and implied growth sanity-checked?
[ ] Bridge: cash, non-operating assets, debt, leases, minority,
    preferred, pensions, options (TSM or option value)?
[ ] Failure probability for young or distressed firms?
[ ] Comparables chosen on economics; median and IQR shown?
[ ] Equity vs enterprise multiples matched correctly?
[ ] For startups: preferred terms modeled, not headline post?
[ ] Sensitivity grid and scenarios shown; answer is a range?
[ ] Who wants which answer, and have I corrected for it?

References